Unit Name: Business Finance
Assignment: Tutorial Questions Assignment (Individual)
Weighting: 50% Purpose:
This assignment is designed to assess your level of knowledge of the key topics covered in this unit
Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of difficulty. The tutorial questions are available in the Black Board/ Tutorial Materials/ Tutorial Questions for Final Assessment for each week. The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from week 3 to week 11 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.
The questions to be answered are:
Question 1(11 marks)
(This question is from the Week 4 Tutorial)
$5 550 000
$6 640 000
|Future Cash Flows Year 1|
1 230 000
2 210 000
1 200 600
1 150 000
1 120 000
2 830 000
1 300 000
1 750 000
1 180 000
1 150 000
Question 2(11 marks)
(This question is from the Week 3 and Week 4 Tutorials)
Alice has $5 000 now. She wants to save $25 000 to buy her first car. She decides to put that $5 000 in an investment fund that pays an interest rate of 10% per annum (per year), compounding annually.
Question 3(7 marks)
(This question is from the Week 7 and Week 8 Tutorials)
MLC Fund Management is considering the following three (3) options for their new investment portfolio:
Option 1 - A non-callable corporate bond that pays a coupon rate of 8% annually. The bond will mature in 30 years. The yield-to-maturity (YTM) of the bond is 7.5% and the face value of the bond is $1 000.
Option 2 - An ordinary share which just paid a dividend of $6.00 with a constant dividend growth rate of 5% each year. The current market price of this share is $85.
Option 3 - A $100 par value preference-share which pays a fixed dividend of 6%. The required rate of return for the preference shares with the same risk is 8%.
Question 4(7 marks)
(This question is from the Week 9 Tutorial)
Marcus has an investment portfolio that paid the rate of return of 24.75%, -11%, - 30%, 19%, 15.5%, 12% and 20% over the last seven (7) years.
State of economy
Probability of the economic state
Rate of Return
(This question is from the Week 10 Tutorial)
Osborne Construction currently has the following capital structure:
Debt: $20,500,000 paying 9.5% coupon bonds outstanding with 15 years to maturity, an annual before-tax yield to maturity of 8% on a new issue. The bonds currently sell for
$1,125 per $1,000 face value.
Ordinary Shares: 100,000 shares outstanding currently selling for $45 per share. The company just paid a $3.50 dividend per share and is experiencing a 5% growth rate in dividends, which it expects to continue indefinitely.
(Note: The firm's marginal tax rate is 30%.)
Question 6(7 marks)
(This question is from the Week 11 Tutorial)
The following data is available for Quick Serve Trading Ltd.
Long term debts
Total cost of sales
(Note - Assume that all sales are on credit)
b) Net present value:
|Years||Project A|| || ||Project B|| || |
| ||Cash flows||PVF||PV||Cash flows||PVF||PV|
|NPV|| || ||-469060|| || ||-428795|
(ii) Both the projects of the company have a negative net present value therefore both the projects should not be acceptable by the company.
a) Time for saving $ 25000:
Principal = 5000, Amount = 25000, Interest = 10 %, time =?
Amount = Principal (1+rate) ^t
25000 = 5000 (1+10%) ^t
T = 17 Years (Approx.)
b) Calculation of investment amount:
Principal =? Amount = 25000, Interest = 10 %, time =5 years
25000 = Principal (1.1) ^5
Principal = 15523 answer
c) Return on investment:
Principal = 6000, Rate = 12/4 = 3 %, time = 7*4 = 25 quarter, amount = ?
Amount = 6000 * (1.03) ^28
Amount = 13727 answer
d) Effective annual interest
Option A = 10.25 %
Option B = 10.33 %
Therefore, option B is better than option A and the amount is invested in option B.
e) Amount of monthly payment:
Amount of loan = $ 45000 - $ 25000 = $ 20000
Time = 3 years
Interest rate = 3.5 %
Monthly payment = $ 586
f) PV of income flow:
Fixed income received each year=$ 10000
Required rate of return=14 %
PV of income=$ 10000 / 14%= $ 71429
a) Value of bond:
Value of bond =PV value of face value + PV of interest received
When coupon rate is paid annually:
1000 * 0.114 + 80 * 11.81=$ 1058.80
When coupon rate is paid quarterly:
1000 * 0.114 + 20 * 47.59=$ 1065.80
b) Required rate of return:
Current market price= Dividend * (1 + growth rate) / Ke – Growth rate
$ 85=6 * (1 + 0.05) / Ke – 0.05
c) Value of Preference share:
Value of preference share=Dividend / required rate of return
=$ 6 / 8 %=$ 75
d) Hybrid of preference share:
The preference share has the characteristics of both equity shares and bonds. As there are fixed returns on preference share as the rate of dividend is predetermined and the payment is considered as a dividend. The risk is low as compared to equity shares and returns are high as compared to equity shares also the risk is high as compared to bonds and returns are low as compared to bonds. Therefore the preference shares are considered as a hybrid between equity and debt instrument.
a) Valuation of AAR and GAR
|Arithmetic average||7.18%|| |
|Geometric average|| ||5.30%|
The arithmetic mean is the average of the data set in the arithmetic mean the sum of the data set is divided by the numbers in the data set to get the arithmetic mean, whereas in the geometric mean the product of the numbers are calculated and then these products are rising to the length of its series. The geometric mean considers the compounding effect from period to period whereas the average return or arithmetic return does not incorporate the compounding return in it. Therefore when the investors analyze any portfolio they take the geometric mean over the arithmetic mean.
c) Calculation of expected return, variance, and standard deviation:
|State of economy||Probability||Rate of return||p*X = Mean||(X-Mean)||(X-Mean)^2|
| || || ||17.65|| ||314.4125|
Expected return = 17.65 %
Variance = 314.4125
Standard deviation = (314.4125) ^1/2 = 17.73
a) Total market value of the company
| || || |
|The total Market value of the firm||27562500|
|Script||Calculation||Market Value||Capital structure|
| || || || |
|The capital structure of the company||27562500||1.00|
Cost of equity –
D1 = 3.5 * 1.05 = 3.675
P = 45
G = 5%
45 = 3.675 / (Ke-.05)
Ke = 13.17 %
Cost of debt = 8 * (1 -.3) = 5.6 %
|Script||Calculation||Market Value||Capital structure||Cost ||WACC|
| || || || || || |
|The capital structure of the company||27562500||1.00|| ||7%|
The weighted average cost of capital is the cost of the funding of the company, any project that is accepted by the company must be earning more than the WACC. In the company the capital structure outrightly debt intensive the company has an 84 % debt in the total capital structure of the company and a weighted average cost of capital is 7 %. The cost of debt post-tax is 5.6 % and the cost of equity is 13.17 %.
a) Calculation of the operating cycles and cash conversion cycle
Operating cycles = days of sales outstanding + days of inventory outstanding
Days of sales outstanding = [(Opening debtors + Closing debtors)/2] / (Revenue/365)
Days of sales outstanding = (123400+122300)/2] / (737000/365)
DSO = 61 Days
Days of inventory outstanding = [(Opening Inventory + Closing Inventory)/2] / (COGS/365)
Days of inventory outstanding = [(160600 + 167200)/2] / (265000/365)
= 226 days
Operating cycle = 61 +226 = 287 days
Cash conversion cycle = operating cycle – days of suppliers outstanding
Days of supplier outstanding = [(Opening payables + Closing payables)/2] / (COGS/365)
= 169 days
Cash conversion cycle = 287 -169 = 118 days
b) Explanation of outcomes:
As the operating cycle is 287 days which shows there is a lack of liquidity from debtors and inventories. The company has a lack of efficiency in recovering the cash and liquid from the sales of inventories. The operations of the business is depending on the liquidity of the company and the high operating cycle may cause the problem of liquidation in case of emergency and instant need of cash funds. The high operating cycle denotes the blockage of the fund in inventories and debtors.
The cash conversion cycle is 118 days which shows the company has a net cash conversion period after payment of creditors. The high cash conversion cycle is not good for the company as the company has a block of funds in inventories and debtors and liable to pay dues to suppliers and creditors. The company has a liquidation problem in this case as the net cash conversion may take approx 3 months and a decrease in days of supplier outstanding may impact the financial feasibility of the company.